Thus far we have seen all of the precedent–setting incidents in which salvation was brought to the various nations:
In each case, during the first incidence of any person in these various groups being saved, the Bible specifically states that they were baptized. When they were baptized, it is either specifically or implicitly stated that they were baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ," or some variation of "Jesus Christ." Never—not even once—was anyone ever baptized with the words "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost." A concordance can be used to look up each instance in which the word "father" or "Father" is used in the book of Acts to prove this (review section 6).
Compare what Jesus said:
MATTHEW 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
MATTHEW 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Compare this with what Jesus Christ also said elsewhere:
LUKE 24:45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
LUKE 24:46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
LUKE 24:47 And that 1) repentance and 2) remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
It was at Jerusalem where repentance and remission of sins was first preached:
ACTS 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, 1) Repent, and 2) be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
In this verse, Peter taught that this is to be done in the name of Jesus Christ.
Did Peter do as he was told, or not? (For Jesus said "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost," but Peter told the people to be baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ.") Or did Jesus contradict Himself in Matthew 28:19 and Luke 24:46-47? Or is there, perhaps, more to be understood about what all is entailed in the name "Jesus Christ?"
"Jesus" is the name of the Christ (Luke 24:46-47). Therefore, Peter preached baptism in the name of "Jesus Christ." Peter did, in fact, do just as he was told, for he, the other apostles, and the early Church understood that the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost is, in fact, "Jesus Christ."
Notice that at Acts 2, that they of Jerusalem were not specifically told to "believe," and yet three thousand souls were saved that day. Based upon Christ's previous commandment, however, it becomes obvious that they must have also believed, since Jesus said:
MARK 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
MARK 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
Therefore, baptism without faith is invalid; and "faith," when baptism is refused, is disbelief. (After all, if we believe His word in this, then we are to do it). Biblically, belief and baptism are inter–twined, and cannot be disconnected from each other.
Elsewhere in the book of Acts, whenever it says that they "believed," it is understood that they were baptized as well. This understanding is based on previous precedent which exists within the Bible. (Similarly, in Acts 9, when it says that Paul was baptized, it is understood that Paul believed also, even though it does not specifically say that he did.) Faith and water baptism must both be in tandem with each other.